Tuesday, March 4, 2008

Disgrace: 1-4

1. The first line of the novel begins with "For a man of his age, fifty-two, divorced, he has, to his mind, solved the problem of sex rather well." What is the "problem" that he has solved? Has he really solved it?

Disgrace begins with "For a man of his age, fifty-two, divorced, he has, to his mid, solved the problem of sex rather well." The problem referred to is David Lurie's desire for sex. Initially, he believed that he had solved the problem, or simply satisfied his needs, with the weekly session with Soraya, a hired prostitute. Even when courting her, it is debatable whether he has solved his "problem". His "sessions" can be viewed as a type of drug that simply palliates the pain; nothing is solved, yet a feeling of satisfaction is present. This is what David Lurie suffers from, he is deluded by the fake sense of gratification he is receiving. Later in the novel, David pursues Melanie, his own student, as another "solution" to his problems. He presumes that she will solve his problems, when she too is only a simple, temporary, solution. 
The narrator indicates this idea by emphasizing the phrase, "to his mind", suggesting that only David believes the problem has been solved. This provides some insight into David Lurie's character, who is portrayed to be somewhat emotionless conveying a strong sense of indifference. His past reveals two prior divorces, leaving him with a void which he attempts to fill with meaningless relations. In conclusion, David Lurie's has not been successful in his attempt to solve the "problem", he has merely numbed the pain, resulting in a false sense of fulfillment.

1 comment:

Sirena said...

I agree with you completely. David Lurie is emotionally unattached and is trying to fill the emptiness with meaningless affairs with various women. Its seems like you have been doing your homework :) And i liked our choice of words (SAT vocab) :)